?? are we running into some sort of apparent paradox here, in connection with ... ???recently convincing ourselves that ... ??? "colimit-anti-reflecting cocontinuous functor between cocomplete categories" (??...) is equivalent to "isomorphism anti-reflecting cocontinuous functor between cocomplete categories", vs ... ??stuff learned from martin about how thick subcategories work ???? .... ???

?? maybe not, depending on which vague memories about what we learned from martin are more correct ... ?? ... ?? for example suppose that the main lesson was something like, yes, you can think in terms of invertibilization even if the projection is only half-bicontinuous, but you can't think in terms of killing off of objects unless it's bicontinuous ... ????

(??anything interesting here about ... ???how it works out in derived context ??????? .... ????? ... hmmm .... ???? .... ???maybe ... 2-place chain complex where boundary map is invertible ... ???? .... ??? ??? ... might be interesting ... ???? realtionship to ... ??? moral interpretation of serre's theorem and mistake of mine that martin pointed out .... ???and to other possible such moral interpretations in terms of "flatness" and/or "homotopy flatness" .... ???? .... )